Monday, April 28, 2008

Somebody tell me, please

How could elderly voters become suddenly disenfranchised if they're now required to show ID when they vote? I mean they NEVER needed a drivers license until the voter ID act?
They were trusted to write and cash checks on their word?

And the minority voters that EVERYTHING affects worse than the rest (except the elderly) have never needed to prove who they were for their Gov't handouts life enhancement efforts?
They can get by on their good wrong, too?
...OR are the "minorities" so under-represented that they might be ILLEGAL?

But wait, could this be a reason, or a red herring?
Advocacy groups, including the Brennan Center, say they know of no voter fraud case ever being prosecuted against someone who impersonated another voter at the polls. Indiana's Republican Secretary of State Todd Rokita acknowledged there were no prosecutions in his state for impersonating voters, but said the measure was necessary to protect election integrity.

Since most illegal voters don't need to show *ANY* identification, they don't need to impersonate anyone. They just pull a name out of their @ss and go vote after signing a meaningless affidavit.

And tell me something else, if all votes are supposed to be anonymous, how do the powers that be know who the questionable voters voted for?


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